1. The best suitable material for the heating element is ?
Nichrom - 80% nickel and 20% chromium
silver-grey colour
melting point 1400 °C.
2. Pure silicon is ?
Pure silicone is an intrinsic semiconductor means undoped semiconductor.
3. Impurity atoms to be added to pure silicon in order to make a p-type semiconductor
belongs to ?
For P type, impurities are trivalent --
Boron, Gallium, Indium, Aluminium
and they are called acceptor impurity.
For N type, impurities are pentavalent --
Phosphorous, Arsenic, Antimony, Bismuth
and the are called donor impurity
.
4. Resistivity of a wire depends upon ?
Resistivity of a wire depends upon material
The resistance of a conductor depends on the cross sectional area of the conductor, the length of the conductor, and its resistivity.
It is important to note that electrical conductivity and resistivity are inversely proportional, meaning that the more conductive something is the less resistive it is
.
5. If a ferromagnetic material is heated upto Curie temperature, it becomes ?
भौतिकी विज्ञान में क्यूरी ताप (Curie temperature (Tc)) या क्यूरी बिन्दु (Curie point) वह ताप है जिस पर उस पदार्थ का स्थायी चुम्बकत्व समाप्त हो जाता है और केवल प्रेरित चुम्बकत्व ही शेष रहता है।
If a ferromagnetic material is heated upto Curie temperature, it becomes Paramagnetic material
.
6. At absolute zero temperature, an intrinsic semiconductor behaves as ?
The electricity conductivity of a semiconductor at 0K is zero.
hence resistivity (= 1/electrical conductivity) is infinity.
The temperature is called absolute zero, and it's the lowest possible temperature. It is equal to -273oC or 0K.
7. In an intrinsic semiconductor the Fermi level is ?
The highest energy level that an electron can occupy at the absolute zero temperature is known as the Fermi Level.
The Fermi level lies between the valence band and conduction band because at absolute zero temperature the electrons are all in the lowest energy state.
8. The reluctance offered by a magnetic material is highest when it is ?
Materials that are easily magnetised have a low reluctance and a high permeability, and non-magnetic materials have a high reluctance and a low permeability.
The reluctance offered by a magnetic material is highest when it is diamagnetic.
Actually, diamagnetic substance placed in magnetic field , acquire feeble magnetism opposite to the direction of the magnetic field.
9. If temperature of a pure silicon specimen is increased, then ?
If temperature of a pure silicon specimen is increased, then number of free holes and free electrons increases .
10. Varnishes protect the insulating materials against ?
varnishes protect insulation materials against, moisture, chemical, abrasion, and thermal resistance, as well as being oil proof..
11. A 220 V heater is used on 110 V supply, the heat produced by it will be nearly ?
If a 220V appliance is plugged into 110V then the power drawn will be 1/4th.
First case
when heater connect with 220V suppy and R is heater resistance.
Heat produced P1 = $V^2$/R = 220*220/R ------- (1)
Second case
when heater connected with 110V supply
Heat produced P2 = $V^2$/R = 110*110/R ------ (2)
equation 1/2
P1/P2 = 1/4
12. Two sinusoidal currents are given by following equations :
i1 = 10 sin ( wt +π/3)
i2 = 15 sin ( wt -π/4)
The phase difference between them is?
i1 = 10 sin ( wt +π/3)
i2 = 15 sin ( wt -π/4)
The phase difference between them is?
π/3 + π/4 = 60 + 45 = 105.
13. The reactance offered by a capacitor to an alternating current of frequency 50 Hz is
10 ohm. If frequency is increased to 100 Hz, the reactance will be ?
Xc = 1/ωc = 1/2πfc
I case = 1/2π*50*c = 10
c = 1/1000π
Now in 100Hz
Xc' = 1/2πfc = (1/2π*100)*1000π = 5Ω
.
14. The r.m.s. value of a half-wave rectified alternating current is 10 A. Its value for full-wave
rectification will be ?
The r.m.s. value of a half-wave rectified alternating current is = Im/2 = 10
Im = 20
The r.m.s. value of a full-wave rectified alternating current is = Im/√2 = 20/√2
.
We know a capacitor in steady state act as an insulator in a circuit.
so Req = 200 kΩ
Source Voltage Vs = 300V
C1 and C2 are in series so Ceq = (1µf*2µf)/(1µf+2µf) = 2/3 µf
Voltage across C1 = Vs * Ceq/C1 = 300 * (3/2)/1
= 200 V
.
17. An alternating current given by i = 14.14 sin( wt + π/6) has an r.m.s. value of ?
i rms = Im/√2 = 14.14/1.414
= 10A.
Due to R2 open circuit, no current is flow in circuit so there is no voltage drop and full source voltage will appare across R2 .
19. The capacity of a battery is measured in ?
Units of Battery Capacity: Ampere Hours
The energy stored in a battery, called the battery capacity, is measured in either watt-hours (Wh), kilowatt-hours (kWh), or ampere-hours (Ahr).
The most common measure of battery capacity is Ah.
20. If both the number of turns and core length of an inductive coil are doubled, then its self
inductance will be ?
self inductance of a coil L = Nφ/I
Where:
L is in Henries
N is the Number of Turns
Φ is the Magnetic Flux
Ι is in Amperes
Inductance Example
A hollow air cored inductor coil consists of 500 turns of copper wire which produces a magnetic flux of 10mWb when passing a DC current of 10 amps. Calculate the self-inductance of the coil in Henries.
self inductance of a coil L = Nφ/I = 500*10*$10^-3$ /10 = 0.5 H
self-inductance for an air cored coil (solenoid) is given as:
coefficient of self inductance L= μ0 * $N^2$ * A / ℓ
Where:
L is in Henries
μο is the Permeability of Free Space (4.π.$10^-7$)
N is the Number of turns
A is the Inner Core Area (πr 2) in m2
ℓ is the length of the Coil in metres
So now in Our Question ..
L∝$N^2$/l
L: Self Inductance of the coil.
N: Number of turns of the coil.
l: Length of the coil.
Hence,
L2/L1=$(N2/N1)^2$ *(l1/l2)
Now given that N2=2N1 and l2=2l1
L2/L1=4(1/2)=2
or, L2=2L1
Hence the Self Inductance is doubled. .
21. Mutual inductance between two magnetically coupled coils depends on ?
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22. For sinusoidal waveform, the ratio of average value to r.m.s. value is ?
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23. For an RLC series AC circuit, the current at series resistance is ?
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24. If v = (a + jb) and i = (c + jd), then active power is given by ?
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25. The voltage phasor of a circuit is 10 Ð15° V and current phasor is 2 Ж45° A. The
reactive power in the circuit will be ?
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26. If a capacitance is charged by a square wave current source, then the voltage across the
capacitor will be ?
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27. In the circuit shown below, the terminals A and B are short circuited, the current drawn
from the battery is ?
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29. The output voltage of a battery drops from 100 V with zero load current to 80 V when load
current is 2 A. The internal resistance of the battery is ?
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30. A charge of 0.1 coulomb moves through a given point in every 0.05 seconds. The current
flowing through the point is ?
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31. Which of the following capacitors are used in D.C. circuits ?
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32. In an RLC series AC circuit, if frequency is below the resonant frequency, then ?
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33. An R-L series AC circuit has R = 10 ohm and XL = 10 ohm. It is connected to an AC
voltage source, the phase angle between voltage and current is ?
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35. The capacitance of a capacitor is not affected by ?
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36. A 220 V, 200 W bulb and a 220 V, 100 W bulb are connected in series across a 220 V
supply, the power consumed by them will be ?
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37. The direction of inducted e.m.f. can be found with the help of ?
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38. If 1 ampere current is flowing through a 100 mH coil, then energy stored in the coil is ?
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40. The maximum power dissipation in a resistance from a battery of electromotive force ‘E’
and internal resistance ‘r’ will be ?
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41. Two heater wires of equal length are connected first in series and then in parallel. The
ratio of heat generated from series to parallel connection will be ?
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42. When the current in a coil is increased from 2 A to 4 A in 0.05 seconds, the e.m.f. induced
in the coil is 8 V. The self inductance of the coil is ?
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43. The induced e.m.f. will be maximum when a conductor cuts the magnetic field at an angle of ?
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44. A delta connected load with resistance of 6 ohm and inductive reactance of 8 ohm in each
phase is supplied by a 3-phase, 400 V, 50 Hz, AC supply. The value of total power drawn
by the load is ?
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45. The frequency of voltage generated in a 4-pole alternator rotating at 1800 r.p.m. is ?
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46. A 50 Hz alternator will run at the highest speed if it is wound for ?
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47. A transformer having 1000 turns in primary winding is connected to a single phase 250 V
a.c. supply. For inducing 400 V in secondary winding, the number of turns in secondary
winding must be ?
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48. The field poles and armature core of a d.c. generator are laminated in order to reduce ?
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49. Which one of the following methods gives voltage regulation higher than the actual value
in an alternator ?
The preferred order of calculating the voltage regulation is....
ZPF > ASA > MMF > EMF
Emf method is least preferred over the other methods and zpf method gives the accurate results as it does not alter the values.
the given value is very close to actual, it is zpf or asa method of regulation.
the given value is less than actual, it is mmf method.
the given value is more than actual, it is emf method.
50. If speed of a d.c. shunt motor is increased above the rated speed, then the counter e.m.f. ?
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51. The open current test in a transformer gives ?
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52. The mechanical power developed in a d.c. motor is equal to ?
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53. An electric train employing a d.c. series motor is running at a fixed speed. When a sudden
drop in voltage of supply takes place, then this results in ?
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54. A 220 V dc shunt motor is running at 500 rpm when armature current is 50 A. The value
of armature resistance is 0.2 ohm. The speed of motor at the double torque will be ?
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55. A 10 kVA 220 V/220 V, 50 Hz transformer shows 340 W in short circuit test and 168 W
in open circuit test. Its efficiency at full load and 0.8 power factor lagging is approximately ?
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56. If number of poles in lap wound d.c. generator are doubled, the generated e.m.f. will be ?
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57. A d.c. series motor has linear magnetization characteristics and negligible armature
resistance. The motor speed is ?
where T = load torque
where T = load torque
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58. The most common type of prime mover used for low speed alternators is ?
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59. When speed of an alternator is changed from 3600 rpm to 1800 rpm, the generated emf
will be ?
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60. The power factor of an alternator is determined by its ?
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61. The efficiency of an ordinary transformer is maximum when ?
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62. At light load, efficiency of a transformer is low. It is because ?
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63. The essential condition for parallel operation of two single phase transformers is that they
should have the same ?
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64. A transformer transforms ?
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65. Which of the following connections of a three phase transformer are best suited for
3-phase, 4-wire service ?
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66. Transformers are rated in kVA instead of kW, because ?
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67. A transformer has negative voltage regulation when its load power factor is ?
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68. A 4-pole dc generator runs at 1500 rpm. The frequency of current in armature winding is ?
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69. The no load current in a transformer lags the supply voltage by ?
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70. Two mechanically coupled alternators deliver power at 50 Hz and 60 Hz respectively. The
highest speed of alternators is ?
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71.The heat run test of a transformer without its loading is performed by means of ?
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72. For a d.c. series motor, which of the following expression is correct assuming torque (T)
versus armature current (Ia) characteristics unsaturated ?
where f = air gap flux
where f = air gap flux
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73. A d.c. series motor should never be started at ?
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74. In a d.c. generator, 8 parallel paths and 16 brushes for collection of current are used. If
voltage drop per brush is 1 V, then reduction in the induced e.m.f. will be ?
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75. The input impedance of a common base transistor is ?
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76.Transistor can be operated in ?
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77. In a BJT ?
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78. For any inverting amplifier, the input capacitance due to Miller effect ?
the Miller effect accounts for the increase in the equivalent input capacitance of an inverting voltage amplifier due to amplification of the effect of capacitance between the input and output terminals. The virtually increased input capacitance due to the Miller effect.
79. In an amplifier, if voltage shunt negative feedback is employed, then ?
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80. Feedback in an amplifier is used to ?
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81. Out of the following hybrid parameters of a transistor which has unit of resistance ?
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82. A transistor has following currents :
IB = 25 mA
IC = 4.975 A
Then IE is equal to ?
IB = 25 mA
IC = 4.975 A
Then IE is equal to ?
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83. When used as a voltage regulator, a zener diode is normally ?
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84. The expression for voltage gain Av of a positive feedback amplifier is ?
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85. In a single stage amplifier D.C and A.C load lines ?
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86. Phase reversed of 180° as compared to input occurs in the output of ?
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87. Improper biasing of a transistor circuit leads to ?
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88. When a P-N junction is reverse biased ?
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89. The current gain of a common emitter transistor is 50. The change in emitter current for a
corresponding change of 5 mA in base current will be ?
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90. If the maximum current of a half-wave rectified wave is 10 A, its r.m.s value is given by ?
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91. A common emitter amplifier is characterized by ?
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92. The maximum rectification efficiency of a half-wave rectifier is ?
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93. The ripple factor of a power supply is a measure of ?
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94. The power dissipation in a transistor is the product of ?
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95. Consider the following circuit configurations :
1. Common emitter
2. Common base
3. Emitter follower
The correct sequence in increasing input impedance of these configuration is ?
1. Common emitter
2. Common base
3. Emitter follower
The correct sequence in increasing input impedance of these configuration is ?
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96. The forbidden gap of a Germanium semiconductor material is ?
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97. In the following circuit, forward resistance of diode is zero. For the voltages shown at
input and output of the transformer, the d.c. voltage across 5 ohm resistor will be ?
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98. P-N junction diode is used for the following application : ?
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99. In the following figure, V1 = 8.0 V and V2 = 0 V, Which diode will conduct (assume ideal
diodes) ?
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100. Which one of the following is a non-maskable interrupt ? ?
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101. A balanced modulator is used for generation of which of the following?
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102. A FM wave is given as v = 12 sin (6 × 108 t + 5 sin 1250 t). Its carrier frequency is ?
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103. An operational amplifier has a differential gain of 100 and a common mode gain of 0.01.
Its CMRR will be ?
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104. An input of Vi = 5.0 cos wt is given to an Op-Amp integrator circuit. If R = 2.0 M ohm
and C = 1.0 µF, then output will be ?
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105. The full scale output of an 8 bit DAC for 0 to 10 V range is ?
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106. Memory range of a memory chip 1 K is ?
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107. Which one of the following gate-symbol combinations is false ?
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108. Which one of the following is equal to
–––––
A + B ?
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109. The basic memory cell in a DRAM is a ?
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110. Absorption of radio waves in atmosphere depends on ?
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111. Each flip-flop in a 4-bit ripple counter introduces a maximum delay of 40 n sec. The
maximum clock frequency is ?
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112. Which IC is a decade counter ?
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113. Consider following gates :
1. NAND
2. NOR
3. XOR
Out of these gates, the universal gates are ?
1. NAND
2. NOR
3. XOR
Out of these gates, the universal gates are ?
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114. How many flip-flops are required to build a binary counter circuit to count from 0 to 1023 ?
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115. The number of NAND gates required to implement a function A + A
–B
+ A
–B
C is equal to ?
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116. With reference to following logic circuit, the output will be ?
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117. Which of the following are 3 byte instruction set ?
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118. In the following Op-Amp circuit, the output Vo is ?
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119. Which of the following oscillators is used for generation of high frequency signal ?
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120. In a positive edge triggered JK flip-flop, J = 1, K = 0 and clock pulse is rising, Q will be ?
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121. Kaplan turbines are used whenever the water head is ?
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122. The cost of fuel transportation is minimum in ?
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123. Economisers are used to heat ?
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124. In thermal power plants, the pressure of working fluid cycle is developed by ?
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125. A gas turbine power plant is best suited for ?
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126. Out of the following plant categories :
(i) Nuclear (ii) Run-off river
(iii) Pump storage (iv) Diesel
The base load power plants are ?
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127. Which of the following components is not a part of hydro-electric plant ?
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128. Which one is not a commonly used coolant for fast breeder reactor ?
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129. Combined cycle power plants may need ?
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130. The pH value of water used for boiler of thermal power plant is ?
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131. The expression for power plant output in kilo-watt of a hydro-electric plant is given by ?
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132. A cable has inductance of 0.22 mH per kilometer and capacitance of 0.202 µF per
kilometer. The surge impedance of the cable is ?
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133. The first nuclear power plant was built in India at which place ?
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134. Sag of conductors between two electric poles can be determined by?
Where W = weight per unit length of conductor in kg/m
L = Distance between two poles in metre
T = Tension in conductors in kg-m
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135. The economic size of a conductor in transmission and distribution lines of electric power
is decided by ?
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136. Which alternator will have more number of poles ?
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137. In an AC transmission line difference in phase of voltage at two ends of the line is due to ?
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138. If 5000 kW power is transmitted at 220 kV in place of 11 kV, reduction in the value of
electric current will be ?
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139. In long AC transmission lines, the receiving end voltage becomes greater than sending end
voltage at light load or no load operation. This is due to ?
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140. For extra high voltage ac transmission lines, conductors used are ?
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141. Which of the following relations is true for long transmission line ?
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142. Which of the following is used for power factor improvement in transmission line ?
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143. The connected load of a consumer is 2 kW and his maximum demand is 1.5 kW. The load
factor of the consumer is ?
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144. If diameter of each conductor of a transmission line is ‘d’, then the diameter of n-layer
stranded conductor will be ?
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145. The bundled conductor in EHV transmission line system provides ?
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146. Corona losses in transmission lines are minimized when ?
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147. The power loss in a transmission line depends on ?
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148. The main consideration for operating transmission line at high voltage is ?
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149. The presence of earth in case of overhead transmission line ?
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150. Effect of increase in temperature in an overhead transmission line is ?
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151. A 0-10 A ammeter has a guaranteed accuracy of 1% of full scale deflection, the limiting
error while reading 2.5 A will be ?
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152. The constant of a given energymeter is 500 revolution/kWh. At the test 4.4 kW full load,
meter completes 50 revolutions in 86 seconds. The percentage error of the meter is ?
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153. The most efficient form of damping employed in electric instruments is ?
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154. Which of the following instruments is equally accurate on ac as well as dc circuits ?
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155. The moving system of an indicating type of electrical instrument is subjected to ?
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156. Energy meter runs slowly even if power is not used. This error is called ?
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157. The type of instruments used mainly for standardizing instruments in laboratories is ?
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158. What will happen if a voltmeter is connected like an ammeter in series of the load ?
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159. Series resistance required to read 0-250 V with a moving coil instrument of internal
resistance 2 ohm and full scale deflection of 50 mA is ?
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160. Which of the following is not a method of resistance measurement ?
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161. Internal resistance of a micro-ammeter is 500 ohm. Shunt resistance required to increase
its range from 0-100 µA to 0-10 A will be approximately ?
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162. Hay bridge is suitable for measuring following type of inductance ?
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163. The dielectric loss of a capacitance can be measured by ?
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164. In a particular meter, the deflecting torque is directly proportional to the current flowing
through it, the type of meter is ?
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165. For measurement of low resistance, the bridge used is ?
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166. While measuring power in a three phase load by two wattmeter method, the reading of two
wattmeter are equal and opposite, when ?
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167. Megger is used to measure ?
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168. If a dynamometer wattmeter is connected in an ac circuit, the power indicated by the
wattmeter will be ?
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169. The Maxwell bridge is used for measuring ?
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170. A compensated wattmeter has its reading corrected for error due to ?
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171. A null type of instrument as compared to a deflecting type instrument has ?
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172. A digital voltmeter has a read-out range from 0 to 9999 counts. When full scale reading is
9.999 V, the resolution of the instrument will be ?
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173. A VTVM can be used to measure ?
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174. The sensitivity of a voltmeter using 0-5 mA meter movement is ?
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175. Moving coil instruments have which one of the following scales ?
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176. Super conducting materials can be used for ?
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177. Ferrites are types of ?
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178. In which material, valence electrons are tightly bounded to their parent atoms ?
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179. The disc of domestic supply energy meter is made of which material ?
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180. The material of hair spring used in measuring instruments is made of which of material of
the following : ?
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